I think out of all the “points of Calvinism” I here most often that this is the one that folks struggle with. I know for my own part coming to grips with the Doctrines of Grace (The name I prefer over Calvinism) probably was a process of three years. And in my own life the doctrine of the atonement and it’s extent was the longest process in the whole bunch.
However, I see now how this should be one of the easiest. The truth is you can not begin with the extent of the atonement, you must begin with the need of the atonement and what it accomplishes, before you ever get to it’s extent.
As Christians our mantra about the atonement is that it is substitutionary, vicarious and penal. I would like to explore the meanings of these, and most importantly show the scriptural basis for these beliefs, and then in time show that every orthodox believer “limits” the atonement, just by these understandings alone.
In my mind there is no better nor concise a verse in regard to these words (substitution, vicarious and penal) than 2 Corinthians 5:21, which in the NASB reads, “He (God) made Him (Jesus) who knew no sin, to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.” It is in this verse that we see a substitution. What was done on our behalf is what we deserved. We see a vicarious substitution. We see penal substitution. We deserved the punishment and wrath of God on the cross, that instead, Jesus endured. We deserved separation from God, that Christ experienced when he cried, “Eloi, Eloi, Lama Sabachthani?”
If we see the atonement in it’s accomplishment as substitutionary, we have to see it as applicable in a saving sense only to the elect. Who is the “our” that Paul is referring to, if God made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf? Has Christ taken on the sins of those who are being punished right now for their sins, let’s say Hitler? What then is Hitler being punished for right now, if not his own sins? If Christ’s substitution is on behalf of all men for all times, then why is and will God continue to pour out His wrath on the unregenerate?
Not only this but the outcome of 2 Corinthians 5:21 is that, “we might become the righteousness of God in Him.” Using the same example of Hitler, if Christ has substituted the place of all mankind in the receiving of the just punishment, for the accomplishment of God’s righteousness in us, then why isn’t Hitler standing righteous before God as one who has been made so by the cross of Christ?
I hear the cries of foul already, “2 Corinthians 5:21 merely speaks of the potential of salvation for all men!” Again we have to go back to this idea of substitution. If Christ really substituted for all mankind, then why is anyone receiving punishment? If Christ bore the wrath of God for all men, then why are and will men receive the wrath of God?
Just some thoughts to consider. I will try to post more on this in future days.
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